Biology Review

Course Detail

Revision Questions

List of Contents


The Cell

1. Name the of the cell structure that fits the statement.

  1. a. Produces ATP ____________________
  2. b. Produces proteins ____________________
  3. c. Stores food, water, or wastes ____________________
  4. d. Contains DNA ____________________
  5. e. Converts solar energy to chemical energy ____________________
  6. f. Is used to digest material inside the cell ____________________
  7. g. Protects the cell membrane ____________________
  8. h. Packages substances for secretion ____________________
  9. i. Intracellular transport. ____________________
  10. j. "Gatekeeper" of the cell ____________________
  11. k. The "powerhouse" of the cell ____________________

2. Define the following terms:

  1. a. Isotonic - ______________
  2. b. Hypertonic -______________
  3. c. Hypotonic - ______________
  4. d. Osmosis -______________
  5. e. Diffusion - ______________
  6. f. Semi-permeable -______________
  7. g. Concentration gradient - ______________
  8. h. Equilibrium – ______________

3. What are the specialized cells that move water from the roots to the leaves of a plant?

  1. A. Phloem tissue cells
  2. B. Xylem tissue cells
  3. C. Water pump cells
  4. D. Water tubules

4. In the early 1900s, a Dutch researcher named Frits Went confirmed that there was a chemical produced in the stem tips of growing seedlings that stimulated growth. He named this chemical:

  1. A. SGH (seedling growth hormone)
  2. B. GH (growth hormone)
  3. C. Agar
  4. D. Auxin

5. A number of processes and forces are necessary for moving water and nutrients from the soil around the plant to the leaves. In order, these processes are:

  1. A. Adhesion/cohesion, osmosis/diffusion, transpiration
  2. B. Adhesion/cohesion, transpiration, osmosis/diffusion
  3. C. Osmosis/diffusion, adhesion/cohesion, transpiration
  4. D. Osmosis/diffusion, transpiration, adhesion/cohesion

6. Many plants have adaptations to help them survive in certain climates. The cactus is one such plant. Its leaves have been modified into spines in an effort to:

  1. A. Increase the amount of surface area for photosynthesis.
  2. B. Reduce the amount of shade produced by the plant.
  3. C. Reduce the amount of water lost by transpiration.
  4. D. Increase the surface area for dew to collect.

7. Plants are able to respond to stimuli from around them. What are these responses called?

  1. A. Reactions
  2. B. Tropisms
  3. C. Controls
  4. D. Auxins

8. One major difference between xylem cells and phloem cells is:

  1. A. Xylem cells are very square in shape while phloem cells are not.
  2. B. Phloem cells are covered in tiny hair-like projections to increase absorption while xylem cells are not.
  3. C. Phloem cells are dead while xylem cells are alive.
  4. D. Xylem cells are dead while phloem cells are alive.

9. Describe three things you could do to increase this movement?

10. The transport of materials through the membrane, with no requirement for energy is called?

11. The transport of materials by proteins through a cell membrane, and against a concentration gradient is called?

12. What is the energy source for movement against a concentration gradient?

13. Cell membranes only allow certain materials through. What is the name of these types of membranes?

14. Why do trees that have their outer bark and xylem damaged quite often die?

  1. A. They are no longer able to move food from the leaves to the roots of the plant, and once the roots die, the plant dies.
  2. B. They are no longer able to move water from the roots to the leaves, and once the leaves die, the plant dies.
  3. C. The damaged area allows disease to get into the tree and kill it.
  4. D. The tree dries out as a result of the damaged area.

15. The transport of water up the plant is aided by root pressure. How is this pressure created?

  1. A. The weight of the surrounding dirt on the roots of the plant.
  2. B. Root pressure is created when water flows into the root system, trying to dilute the solutes inside.
  3. C. Tiny pump cells within the roots create this pressure.
  4. D. The cambium of the root creates this pressure.

16. In 1880, Charles Darwin and his son devised an experiment in which they used oat seedlings. They set up four treatment groups of developing seedlings. In the first group, they removed the tip, in the second, they covered the tip with foil, in the third, they covered the base of each seedling with foil, and they left the fourth group untouched. What were they trying to test?

  1. A. Phototropism
  2. B. Gravitropism
  3. C. Oilotropism
  4. D. Nastic response

17. There are many reasons that a plant might need to be able to sense where "up" is. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential reasons?

  1. A. To make the developing seed grow in the correct direction
  2. B. To make the plant out compete neighbouring plants for sunlight
  3. C. To ensure that the plant transports water in the correct direction
  4. D. To make the roots grow in the correct direction

18. Discuss what would occur if plants had no hormones called auxins. Include the effects from gravity, the sun and from water.

19. What is the magnification of a microscope with two lenses if each lens enlarges an image 10X?

20. An ocular lens on a microscope has a magnification of 10X. The objective lenses on the microscope have magnifications of 4X at low power, 10X at medium power, and 40X at high power.

  1. a. How would you combine the lenses on the microscope if you wanted to magnify an object 40X?
  2. b. How would you combine the lenses if you wanted to magnify an object 100X?
  3. c. How would you combine the lenses if you wanted to magnify an object 400X?

21. Water has two special properties that make it possible for plants to transport water up great distances within their vascular tissues. One property is __________________, which is a tendency of water molecules to stick to each other, and the other is __________________, which is a tendency for water molecules to stick to other surfaces.

  1. A. Cohesion, adhesion
  2. B. Cohesion, attraction
  3. C. Adhesion, cohesion
  4. D. Adhesion, attraction

22. What would happen to an animal cell that is placed in a :

  1. a) Hypotonic solution? ______________
  2. b) Hypertonic solution ______________
  3. c) Isotonic solution ______________


Macromolecules

1. Define the following terms:

  1. Catabolism
  2. Anabolism

2. For each of the following, indicate the monomer/subunit and the polymer.

  1. Proteins -
  2. Nucleic acids -
  3. Carbohydrates -
  4. Lipids -

3. Enzymes function as catalysts, speeding up biological reactions.

  1. Explain how enzymes are able to catalyze reactions.
  2. List factors that affect the rate of enzyme activity.

4. The liver produces an emulsifying agent

  1. What is the name and function of this emulsifying agent
  2. What is the benefit of emulsification

5. Fill in the table below.

Test Molecule tested for Positive test Negative Test
Lugol's Iodine
Sudan IV
Benedicts Solution
Translucence
Biuret's SOlution


Energy and Matter in the Biosphere

1. Define the following types of consumers and provide 2 examples of each

  • Herbivore
  • Carnivore
  • Omnivore
  • Scavenger
  • Decomposer

2. Discuss the importance of photosynthesis in energy flow

3. What is the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

4. State the two laws of thermodynamics and their relevance/application to energy flow in an ecosystem.

5. Describe the three types of ecological pyramids and provide an example in an ecosystem context.

6. Discuss the following terms and their relevance to this topic

  • Condensation
  • Precipitation
  • Run off
  • Groundwater
  • Transpiration
  • Respiration
  • Percolation
  • Leaching
  • Water table
  • Atmospheric pool of nitrogen
  • Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules of legumes
  • Fertilizers
  • Soil nitrate
  • Nitrate take up by plant roots
  • Plant and animal proteins
  • Dead organisms
  • Decomposers
  • Nitrate bacteria
  • Nitrite bacteria
  • Denitrifying bacteria
  • Lightning
  • Cellular respiration
  • Photosynthesis
  • Decomposition
  • Weathering
  • Conversion to fossil fuels
  • Sediments
  • In dissolved water
  • Combustion
  • Volcanoes
  • Leaching
  • Geological uplifting
  • Weathering

7. Fill in the blanks

  • ------------------ is atmospheric water falling in the form of rain, snow, sleet, hail etc.
  • -------------------water on the surface or just below the surface in lakes, rivers, oceans, aquifers, artesian wells etc.
  • -------------------that has been heated by the sun as water vapor.
  • -------------------water vapor that forms into water droplets when cooled
  • -------------------the process in which living organisms convert the energy of sugars into energy used by body processes
  • -------------------the loss of water through the leaves of plants

8. Describe the role of each of the following terms in the development of ground water

  • Percolation
  • Water table
  • Leaching

9. What is ozone?

10. What is the role of ozone in the biosphere?

11. What gases cause holes in the ozone layer?

12. What organic molecules in the body of plants and animals contain nitrogen?

13. How do plants obtain the nitrogen they need to produce protein?

14. How do animals obtain their protein?

15. In the process of nitrification, bacteria break down organic wastes into what soluble molecule that can be absorbed by plant roots?

16. In the process of nitrogen fixation, what is the role of bacteria living in the root of legumes?

17. Explain how energy, matter, and the productivity of ecosystems are interrelated.

18. Define homeostasis in respect to the closed system of the Biosphere.

19. Explain the influence on atmospheric composition of the equilibrium between the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

20. Discuss the influence of human activities on the biosphere.

21. Explain the changes in the composition of Earth’s atmosphere from past to present.



Ecosystems and Population Change

Ecology and Ecosystems

1. Discuss how ecotones can reduce the possibility of species extinction.

2. Define the term 'Carrying Capacity'.

3. List four examples of limiting factors for population growth.

4. State the Law of Tolerance.

5. State the Law of Minimums.

6. With examples, discuss density-dependent and density-independent factors affecting changes in populations.

7. Which of the following might best explain the disappearance of all life on earth? If all the

  1. A. Decomposers disappeared
  2. B. Producers disappeared
  3. C. Consumers disappeared
  4. D. Hydrogen gas disappeared

8. If decomposers did not exist on the earth, the only method of recycling carbon would be by subjecting organic material to

  1. A. Burning
  2. B. Burying
  3. C. Grinding
  4. D. Digestion

9. An example of the primary consumers in a community are the

  1. A. Cats that eat moles
  2. B. Molds that cause decay
  3. C. Bacteria that live in the soil
  4. D. Rabbits that eat leaves and stems

10. There are always fewer organisms at each higher step of the food pyramid because

  1. A. Each organism is larger than the previous
  2. B. At each step the reproductive rate decreases
  3. C. Energy is lost as heat in each step of the pyramid
  4. D. More organisms die at each higher level of the food chain

11. If carbon dioxide were withdrawn from the biosphere, which organism would first experience negative effects?

  1. A. Producers
  2. B. Decomposers
  3. C. Primary consumers
  4. D. Secondary consumers

12. Which of the following statements best describes the work done by decomposers?

  1. A. Find calcium in plants and take it from the soil or water
  2. B. Create new sources of oxygen and release free nitrogen
  3. C. Prevent the escape of energy to outer space
  4. D. Release carbon from dead bodies

13. Which best represents the normal flow of energy in a food chain?

  1. A. Sparrow > seeds > hawk > bacteria
  2. B. Hawk > seeds > bacteria > sparrow
  3. C. Seeds > sparrow > hawk > bacteria
  4. D. Sparrow > hawk > bacteria > seeds

14. In the pyramid of numbers there will always be

  1. A. More secondary consumers than primary consumers
  2. B. Fewer secondary consumers than primary consumers
  3. C. More secondary consumers than producers
  4. D. More primary consumers than producers

15. Which organisms are most immediately essential to the existence of primary consumers?

    \
  1. A. Producers
  2. B. Decomposers
  3. C. Tertiary consumers
  4. D. Secondary consumers

16. If the nitrogen fixing and nitrifying bacteria in the soil were destroyed, a probable result would be a reduction in available

  1. A. Fats
  2. B. Proteins
  3. C. Disaccharides
  4. D. Monosaccharides

17. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the

  1. A. Producers
  2. B. Consumers
  3. C. Scavengers
  4. D. Decomposers

18. A sequence of species through which the organic molecules in a community pass is called a

  1. A. Food chain
  2. B. Nutrient cycle
  3. C. Pyramid of energy
  4. D. Biogeochemical cycle

19. A consumer whose carbon atoms have already passed through three species is a

  1. A. Scavenger
  2. B. Tertiary producer
  3. C. Tertiary consumer
  4. D. Secondary consumer

20. About how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?

  1. A. 1%
  2. B. 10%
  3. C. 30%
  4. D. 50%

21. About how much of the chemical energy within producer tissues become chemical energy within herbivore tissue

  1. A. 1%
  2. B. 10%
  3. C. 30%
  4. D. 50%

22. An ecological pyramid of biomass is a representation of the ecosystem’s

  1. A. Tissue at each trophic level
  2. B. Populations in each food web
  3. C. Energy flow through each trophic level
  4. D. Biologic material in relation to abiotic material

23. An ecological pyramid of biomass is often an inverted pyramid in which of the following ecosystems?

  1. A. Desert
  2. B. Ocean
  3. C. Tundra
  4. D. Rainforest

24. The largest reservoir of phosphorus in the biosphere is the

  1. A. Atmosphere
  2. B. Organisms
  3. C. Ocean
  4. D. Rocks

25. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is the

  1. A. Atmosphere
  2. B. Organisms
  3. C. Ocean
  4. D. Rocks

26. An ecosystem is a

  1. A. A group of interacting chemicals and their cycles.
  2. B. Group of components that interact with one another.
  3. C. Group of interacting species in one place at one time.
  4. D. Biologic community and components of the physical environment with which the community interacts.

27. Select True or False

  1. ____ Most of the world’s greatest deserts are located near the 300 latitude lines.
  2. ____ The region of the earth that supports life is called the ionosphere.
  3. ____ Biomes are generally recognized by their important plant life.
  4. ____ It requires about 100 cm of annual precipitation to support a temperate deciduous forest.
  5. ____ The rate of decomposition in the soil is faster in the temperate deciduous forest than in any other biome.
  6. ____ Primary producers of the tundra include mosses, lichens, and grasses.
  7. ____ Light is a limiting factor in both the tundra and the taiga.
  8. ____ One contributing factor to the success of the tropical rainforest is its extremely fertile soil.
  9. ____ The energy entering a mature ecosystem is roughly equal to the energy leaving it.
  10. ____ The difference between energy stored at one level and energy stored at the next is represented by heat loss.
  11. ____ Carbon dioxide is known to retard the penetration of light in the atmosphere.
  12. ____ Meteorologists can only theorize about changes in the atmosphere’s carbon dioxide content.
Evolution, Variation and Natural Selection

1. Select True or False

  1. ____ According to Lamarck, a giraffe has a long neck because a Creator designed it that way
  2. ____ Darwin believed that a giraffe has a long neck because a Creator designed it that way
  3. ____ Darwin believed that two different areas within a continent have different species because they have different environments.
  4. ____ Darwin did not actually use the word “Evolution” in his book On the Origin of Species.
  5. ____ The struggle for existence is a consequence of the inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions.
  6. ____ The wings of a bird and the forelegs of a horse are homologous structures.
  7. ____ The wing of a bird and the wings of an insect are homologous structures.
  8. ____ The pelvis and the leg bones of a snake are vestigial structures.

2. A rat loses its tail. Those who believe that the rat’s offspring will be born without tails are following the doctrine of

  1. A. Mutation
  2. B. Natural selection
  3. C. Survival of the fittest
  4. D. Inheritance of acquired characteristics

3. In man, the appendix and ear muscles are examples of

  1. A. Vestigial organs
  2. B. Homology
  3. C. Natural selection
  4. D. Mutations

4. Most fossils are found in

  1. A. Granite
  2. B. Black soil
  3. C. Lava flows
  4. D. Sedimentary rocks

5. A turtle has a trait that gives it a survival advantage. Over time, the percentage of this trait in the population increased. This is probably due to

  1. A. Mutation
  2. B. Use and disuse
  3. C. Natural selection
  4. D. Artificial selection

6. Darwin described natural selection as

  1. A. Environmental stimuli resulting in changes in body structure
  2. B. Inheritance of environmentally acquired characteristics
  3. C. A stable unchanging population of animals
  4. D. Survival value of random differences

7. Lamarck believed certain parts of the body get larger and more complex through the generations because they.

  1. A. Are used more extensively than other parts.
  2. B. Contribute to greater reproductive success.
  3. C. Are predetermined to do so.
  4. D. Formed from part of another planet.

8. If we assume that species do not change, we would expect

  1. A. The most complex fossils only in the oldest rocks
  2. B. The simplest fossils only in the newest rocks
  3. C. The same kind of fossils in both old and new rocks
  4. D. No fossils of any kind in any rocks

9. Evolution can occur more rapidly among organisms which reproduce sexually than among organisms which reproduce asexually because

  1. A. Sexual reproducers are more prone to disease and infection than asexual reproducers, hence only the fit survive.
  2. B. Asexual reproduction is only possible for single celled organisms.
  3. C. Sexual reproduction is more likely to produce a variety of offspring.
  4. D. Asexual reproduction is faster than sexual reproduction.

10. A new species is formed when

  1. A. A series of mutations occurs to cause an organism to appear physiologically different in a population.
  2. B. An organism is isolated from the rest of the species by a geographic barrier.
  3. C. The climate of a population changes drastically.
  4. D. A group of organisms can no longer interbreed with other closely related organisms to produce fertile offspring.

11. A large number of dark and light forms of moths were captured and marked for identification. 488 dark moths and 496 light moths were released. 34 dark moths and 62 light moths were recaptured. Which of the following would be the most reasonable assumption?

  1. A. The moths were released in a forest with dark tree trunks.
  2. B. The moths were released in a forest which had many light tree trunks.
  3. C. The recaptured moths were to few in number to draw a conclusion.
  4. D. Since unequal numbers of moths were released, a conclusion cannot be drawn.


Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration

Photosynthesis

    1. Explain, in general terms, how energy is absorbed by pigments, transferred through the reduction of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) to NADPH, and then transferred as chemical potential energy to ATP by chemiosmosis.

    2. Describe where in the chloroplast the light dependent processes occur.

    3. Explain, in general terms, how the products of the light-dependent reactions, NADPH and ATP, are used to reduce carbon in the light-independent reactions for the production of glucose

    4. Describe where in the chloroplast these light dependent processes occur.

    5. The cellular transport process by which carbon dioxide enters a leaf (and by which water vapor and oxygen exit) is ___.

  1. A. Osmosis
  2. B. Active transport
  3. C. Co- transport
  4. D. Diffusion
  5. E. Bulk flow

    6. 6. The photosynthetic process removes ___ from the environment.

  6. A. Water
  7. B. Sugar
  8. C. Oxygen
  9. D. Chlorophyll
  10. E. Carbon dioxide

    11. 7. The process of splitting water to release hydrogens and electrons occurs during the _____ process.

  11. A. Light dependent
  12. B. Light independent
  13. C. Carbon fixation
  14. D. Carbon photophosphorylation
  15. E. Glycolysis

    16. 8. The process of fixing carbon dioxide into carbohydrates occurs in the ____ process.

  16. A. Light dependent
  17. B. Light independent
  18. C. ATP synthesis
  19. D. Carbon photophosphorylation
  20. E. Gycolysis

    21. 9. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through ____.

  21. A. Chloroplasts
  22. B. Stomata
  23. C. Cuticle
  24. D. Mesophyll cells
  25. E. Leaf veins

    26. 10. The photosynthetic pigment that is essential for the process to occur is ___.

  26. A. Chlorophyll a
  27. B. Chlorophyll b
  28. C. Beta carotene
  29. D. Xanthocyanin
  30. E. Fucoxanthin

    31. 11. The organic molecule produced directly by photosynthesis is:

  31. A. Lipids
  32. B. Sugar
  33. C. Amino acids
  34. D. DNA

    35. 12. Which of the following creatures would not be an autotroph?

  35. A. Cactus
  36. B. Cyanobacteria
  37. C. Fish
  38. D. Palm tree
  39. E. Phytoplankton

    40. 13. The process by which most of the world's autotrophs make their food is known as ____.

  40. A.Glycolysis
  41. B. Photosynthesis
  42. C. Chemosynthesis
  43. D. Herbivory
  44. E. C-4 cycle

    45. 14. The process of ___ is how ADP + P are converted into ATP during the Light dependent process.

  45. A. Glycolysis
  46. B. Galvin Cycle
  47. C. Chemiosmosis
  48. D. Substrate-level phosphorylation
  49. E. Krebs Cycle

    50. 14. Once ATP is converted into ADP + P, it must be ____.

  50. A. Disassembled into components (sugar, base, phosphates) and then reassembled
  51. B. Recharged by chemiosmosis
  52. C. Converted into NADPH
  53. D. Processed by the glycolysis process
  54. E. Converted from matter into energy.

    55. 15. A heterotroph gets its carbon from

  55. A. Carbon dioxide
  56. B. Methane
  57. C. Soil
  58. D. Organic molecules

    59. 16. The colors of light in the visible range (from longest wavelength to shortest) are ___.

  59. A. ROYGBIV
  60. B. VIBGYOR
  61. C. GRBIYV
  62. D. ROYROGERS
  63. E. EBGDF

    64. 17. Generally speaking, the longer the wavelength of light, the ___ the available energy of that light.

  64. A. Smaller
  65. B. Greater
  66. C. Same

    67. 18. Photosynthetic autotrophs get their energy from

  67. A. Heat
  68. B. Light
  69. C. Inorganic molecules
  70. D. Organic molecules

    71. 19. When a pigment reflects red light, _____.

  71. A. All colors of light are absorbed
  72. B. All colors of light are reflected
  73. C. Green light is reflected, all others are absorbed
  74. D. Red light is reflected, all others are absorbed
  75. E. Red light is absorbed after it is reflected into the internal pigment molecules.

    76. 20. Chlorophyll a absorbs light energy in the ____color range.

  76. A. Yellow-green
  77. B. Red-orange
  78. C. Blue violet
  79. D. A and B
  80. E. B and C.

    81. 21. A photosystem is ___.

  81. A. A collection of hydrogen-pumping proteins
  82. B. A collection of photosynthetic pigments arranged in a thylakoid membrane
  83. C. A series of electron-accepting proteins arranged in the thylakoid membrane
  84. D. Found only in prokaryotic organisms
  85. E. Multiple copies of chlorophyll a located in the stroma of the chloroplast.

    86. 22. The fluid-filled area of the chloroplast is the ___.

  86. A. Grana
  87. B. Stroma
  88. C. Thylakoids
  89. D. Cristae
  90. E. Matrix

    91. 23. The chloroplasts of plants are most close in size to __.

  91. A. Unfertilized human eggs
  92. B. Human cheek cells
  93. C. Human nerve cells
  94. D. Bacteria in the human mouth
  95. E. Viruses

    96. 24. Which of these photosynthetic organisms does not have a chloroplast?

  96. A. Plants
  97. B. Red algae
  98. C. Cyanobacteria
  99. D. Diatoms
  100. E. Dinoflagellates

    101. 25. An autotroph is an organism that

  101. A. Requires no input of materials from its environments
  102. B. Sustains itself without eating other organisms
  103. C. Sustains itself without aerobic cellular respiration
  104. D. Uses ammonia instead of water as a solvent

    105. 26. An autotroph gets its carbon from

  105. A. Carbon dioxide
  106. B. Methane
  107. C. Soil
  108. D. Organic molecules

    109. 27. A heterotroph is an organism that gets its energy from

  109. A. Heat
  110. B. Light
  111. C. Inorganic molecules
  112. D. Organic molecules

    113. 28. The chloroplast contains all of these except ___.

  113. A. Grana
  114. B. Stroma
  115. C. DNA
  116. D. Membranes
  117. E. Endoplasmic reticulum

    118. 29. The pigment molecules of a chlorplast are located

  118. A. Within its thylakoid membranes
  119. B. Within its “intra-thylakoid” spaces
  120. C. Within its inner membrane
  121. D. Within the space between its inner and outer membranes

    122. 30. In a plant cell, the light reactions of photosynthesis take place in the

  122. A. Cytoplasm
  123. B. Endoplasmic reticulum
  124. C. Mitochondria
  125. D. Chloroplasts

    126. 31. In a plant cell, the light independent reactions of photosynthesis take place in the

  126. A. Cytoplasm
  127. B. Endoplasmic reticulum
  128. C. Mitochondria
  129. D. Chloroplasts

    130. 32. Which of the following colors of light work(s) best for photosynthesis?

  130. A. Green
  131. B. Yellow
  132. C. Blue and red
  133. D. Violet and yellow

    134. 33. Which of the following colors of light is (are) the least effective in photosynthesis

  134. A. Green
  135. B. Yellow
  136. C. Blue and red
  137. D. Violet and yellow

    138. 34. The red, orange, and yellow colors of autumn leaves are caused by light reflected from

  138. A. Chlorophyll a
  139. B. Chlorophyll b
  140. C. Chlorophyll c
  141. D. Carotenoids

    142. 35. How many carbon atoms are there in a molecule of RuBP?

  142. A. 2
  143. B. 3
  144. C. 5
  145. D. 6

    146. 36. A source of protons for the proton gradient within a chloroplast is

  146. A. Phospholipids within the thylakoid membranes
  147. B. Water
  148. C. CH2O
  149. D. Chlorophyll

    150. 37. When sunlight is on the chloroplast, pH is lowest in the

  150. A. Stroma
  151. B. Space enclosed by the inner and outer membranes
  152. C. Spaces enclosed by the thylakoid membranes
  153. D. Cytoplasm

    154. 38. In photosynthesis, energy for attaching phosphate to ADP in photosystem II comes directly from

  154. A. Oxidation of glucose
  155. B. Reduction of glucose
  156. C. A proton gradient
  157. D. Formation of NADPH

    158. 39. The molecule in the Calvin-Benson cycle that combines with carbon dioxide is

  158. A. ADP
  159. B. Ribulose biphosphate
  160. C. Pyruvic acid
  161. D. Citric acid

    162. 40. The individual flattened stacks of membrane material inside the chloroplast are known as ___.

  162. A. Grana
  163. B. Stroma
  164. C. Thylakoids
  165. D. Cristae
  166. E. Matrix

    167. 41. The section of the electromagnetic spectrum used for photosynthesis is ___.

  167. A. Infrared
  168. B. Ultraviolet
  169. C. X-ray
  170. D. Visible light
  171. E. None of the above

    172. 42. Plants store glucose as

  172. A. Monosaccharides
  173. B. Cellulose
  174. C. Starch
  175. D. Glycogen

    176. 19. If all of green plants were to suddenly disappear, which of the following substances normally found in the atmosphere would be first to be used up?

  176. A. CO2
  177. B. N2
  178. C. H2O(g)
  179. D. O2

    180. 20. Which of the following occurs during the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis?

  180. A. ATP is produced
  181. B. Chlorophyll releases energy
  182. C. Hydrogen is released from water
  183. D. Carbohydrate molecules are synthesized
Cellular Respiration

    1. The function of cellular respiration is to

  1. A. Make ATP
  2. B. Make NADH
  3. C. Get rid of glucose
  4. D. Get rid of carbon dioxide

    5. 2. The term anaerobic means

  5. A. With glucose
  6. B. With oxygen
  7. C. Without glucose
  8. D. Without oxygen

    9. 3. Which of the following processes makes direct use of oxygen?

  9. A. Glycolysis
  10. B. Fermentation
  11. C. Krebs cycle
  12. D. Electron transport

    13. 4. How many molecules of oxygen gas (O2) are used during the glycolysis of one glucose molecule”

  13. A. 0
  14. B. 1
  15. C. 16
  16. D. 38

    17. 5. During glycolysis, glucose is split into

  17. A. Two pyruvic acid molecules
  18. B. Two lactic acid molecules
  19. C. One lactic acid plus one ethanol molecule
  20. D. Two coenzyme A molecules

    21. 6. When oxygen is not available to a muscle cell, NADH formed during glycolysis does not pass electrons to the electron transport system. Instead it passes hydrogen atoms to

  21. A. Acetyl CoA
  22. B. Pyruvic acid
  23. C. Fructose
  24. D. ADP

    25. 7. Which one of the following processes releases a carbon dioxide molecule?

  25. A. Glycolysis
  26. B. Lactic acid fermentation
  27. C. Alcohol fermentation
  28. D. Hydrolysis of glycogen

    29. 8. How many carbon atoms are in a citric acid molecule, the molecule formed when acetyl Co A enters the Krebs Cycle?

  29. A. 2
  30. B. 3
  31. C. 4
  32. D. 6

    33. 9. At the end of the Krebs cycle, most of the energy removed from the glucose molecule has been transferred to

  33. A. NADH and FADH2
  34. B. ATP
  35. C. Citric acid
  36. D. Pyruvic acid

    37. 10. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electrons is

  37. A. Cytochrome b
  38. B. Cytochrome a3
  39. C. Substance Q
  40. D. Oxygen

    41. 11. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that aids in electron transport is

  41. A. Carbon
  42. B. Iron
  43. C. Zinc
  44. D. Oxygen

    45. 12. In aerobic cellular respiration, most of the ATP is synthesized during

  45. A. Glycolysis
  46. B. Oxidation of pyruvic acid
  47. C. Krebs cycle
  48. D. Electron transport

    49. 13. The free energy change from the conversion of one molecule of glucose to six molecules of carbon dioxide is -686 kcal/mol, yet only about 266 kcal/mol of this is captured within ATP molecules. The rest is

  49. A. Converted to heat
  50. B. Lost within carbon dioxide
  51. C. Used to form lactic acid
  52. D. Transferred to water molecules

    53. 14. Glycolysis takes place

  53. A. Within the chloroplast
  54. B. On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
  55. C. In the cytoplasm
  56. D. Within the mitochondrion

    57. 15. The Krebs cycle and electron transport take place

  57. A. Within the chloroplast
  58. B. On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
  59. C. In the cytoplasm
  60. D. Within the mitochondrion

    61. 16. The inner membrane of a mitochondrion is very selective about what it allows to leave the organelle. One molecule that regularly passes out of a mitochondrion is

  61. A. Citric acid
  62. B. ATP
  63. C. Pyruvic acid
  64. D. Glucose

    65. 17. Within the mitochondrion, the proton gradient develops across the

  65. A. Inner membrane
  66. B. Outer membrane
  67. C. Intermembrane space
  68. D. Matrix

    69. 18. The function of the mitochondrial cristae is to

  69. A. Prevent escape of oxygen gas
  70. B. Store Acetyl CoA
  71. C. Increase surface area of the inner membrane
  72. D. Increase the availability of phospholipids

    73. 19. For an animal cell, the main advantage of aerobic cellular respiration over lactic acid fermentation is that

  73. A. More energy is released from each glucose molecule
  74. B. Less carbon dioxide is released
  75. C. More carbon dioxide is released
  76. D. Fats and proteins are not used as fuel


Circulatory System

1. Select True or False

  1. ________Fluid can be exchanged between the arterioles and the tissues of the body
  2. ________The function of the lymph glands is to add fluid to the lymph vessels
  3. ________Osmotic pressure causes blood to exit at the capillaries
  4. ________Systolic pressure is the pressure in the veins when the ventricles are contracting
  5. ________Red blood cells are unable to leave the capillaries during capillary fluid exchange
  6. ________Normal blood pressure ranges between 110/70 and 120/80
  7. ________The blood pressure in an arteriole is higher than in a venule
  8. ________Pre-capillary sphincters are valves that are found inside capillaries
  9. ________The carotid artery is the largest artery in the body
  10. ________Venules have a greater blood pressure than capillaries
  11. ________It is systolic and diastolic pressure that drives the capillary fluid exchange

2. Match the description in the term listed from A to J with the correct description below

  1. A Plasma
  2. B. Platelets
  3. C. Lymphocytes
  4. D. Antigens
  5. E. Fibrin
  6. F. Hemoglobin
  7. G. Antibodies
  8. H. Anemia
  9. I. Leukemia
  10. J. Lymphatic system
  1. ________iron containing molecule in red blood cells
  2. ________white blood cells which produce antibodies
  3. ________liquid part of the blood
  4. ________returns tissue fluid to the blood
  5. ________cell fragments involved in clotting
  6. ________foreign molecules in the body
  7. ________cancer of the bone marrow
  8. ________condition in which the blood cannot carry sufficient oxygen
  9. ________strands of proteins involved in clotting
  10. ________react with antigens and inactivates them

3. Starting from and ending with the heart, trace the blood flow through the human circulatory system by numbering the following in the correct order (1 to 6).

  1. _______Heart
  2. ________Veins
  3. ________Arterioles
  4. ________Capillaries
  5. ________Arteries
  6. ________Venule

4. Circulation - Fill in the blanks with the correct answers.

The heart beats regularly because it has its own pacemaker. The pacemaker is a small region of muscle called the ________________, or ______________ node. It is in the upper back wall of the right ______________. The _________________ node triggers an impulse that causes both atria to _________. Very quickly, the impulse reaches the _______________ or _____________ node at the bottom of the _____________ atrium. Immediately, the ________ node triggers an impulse that causes both ______________ to contract.

5. Starting from and ending with the right atrium, trace the flow of blood through the heart and body by numbering the following in the correct order (1 to 10).

  1. ________right atrium
  2. ________left atrium
  3. ________pulmonary artery
  4. ________vena cava
  5. ________aorta
  6. ________lungs
  7. ________right ventricle
  8. ________left ventricle
  9. ________body cells
  10. ________pulmonary veins

6. What term best fits each of the following descriptions?

  1. ________: vessels which carry blood away from the heart
  2. ________: vessels which carry blood toward the heart
  3. ________: tiny blood vessels with walls that are only once cell thick
  4. ________: thick wall that divides the heart into two sides
  5. ________: upper chambers of the heart that receive blood
  6. ________: lower chambers of the heart that pump blood out of the heart
  7. ________: valve between right atrium and right ventricle
  8. ________: valve between left atrium and left ventricle
  9. ________: valves found between the ventricles and blood vessel
  10. ________: the only artery in the body which is rich in carbon dioxide
  11. ________: only vein in the body which is rich in oxygen


Digestive System

    1. Why is it possible to breathe using the mouth when the nose is blocked

    2. Explain why a person can swallow food even when they are in an upside down position.

    3. Boiling affects enzyme-controlled reactions by

  1. A. denaturing the enzyme
  2. B. increasing the rate of reaction
  3. C. increasing the energy of activation
  4. D. decreasing the energy of activation

    5. 4. During an enzymatic reaction, the substrate bonds to the enzyme's

  5. A. active site
  6. B. inhibitory site
  7. C. regulatory site
  8. D. homeostatic site

    9. 5. Hydrogen sulphide is harmful because it occupies the active sites of enzymes that function in the electron transfer chain. This chemical process is an example of

  9. A. buffering
  10. B. denaturation
  11. C. negative feedback
  12. D. competitive inhibition

    13. 6. Competitive inhibitors prevent enzyme action by

  13. A. denaturing the enzyme
  14. B. breaking peptide bonds
  15. C. binding to the active sites
  16. D. lowering the activation energy

    17. 7. Enzymes alter the rate of a reaction by

  17. A. decreasing the activation energy
  18. B. increasing the activation energy
  19. C. decreasing the amount of substrate
  20. D. increasing the amount of substrate

    21. 8. When a competitive inhibitor is added to an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, end products will be formed

  21. A. more rapidly because the energy of activation is increased
  22. B. less rapidly because the energy of activation is decreased
  23. C. at a much faster rate because of competition for active sites on the enzyme
  24. D. at a much slower rate because of completion for active sites on the enzyme

    25. 9. A poison inhibits the activity of an enzyme involved in the breakdown of glucose in a cell. The poison may act by

  25. A. reducing the energy of activation
  26. B. occupying the activation site of the enzyme
  27. C. altering the shape of the glucose molecules
  28. D. increasing electron transfer in the mitochondria

    29. 10. Surgical removal of the human stomach would most directly affect the digestion of

  29. A. fats
  30. B. sugars
  31. C. starches
  32. D. proteins

    33. 11. In the human body, an accessory gland that, in part, stores nutrients, detoxifies the blood and regulates blood glucose levels is called the

  33. A. liver
  34. B. spleen
  35. C. pancreas
  36. D. duodenum

    37. 12. The basic chemical process that occurs in the digestion of food molecules is

  37. A. hydrolysis
  38. B. endocytosis
  39. C. oxidation-reduction
  40. D. dehydration synthesis

    41. 13. Chemical digestion begins in the

  41. A. mouth
  42. B. stomach
  43. C. large intestine
  44. D. small intestine

    45. 14. The digestive juice that contains enzymes capable of digesting carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins is

  45. A. bile
  46. B. saliva
  47. C. gastric juice
  48. D. intestinal juice

    49. 15. Bile salts are necessary for the optimum effectiveness of

  49. A. lipase
  50. B. amylase
  51. C. pepsinogen
  52. D. trypsinogen

    53. 16. Protein digestion begins in the

  53. A. mouth
  54. B. stomach
  55. C. large intestine
  56. D. small intestine

    57. 17. In human digestion, the correct sequence of processes is

  57. A. digestion, egestion, absorption, ingestion
  58. B. ingestion, absorption, digestion, egestion
  59. C. egestion, absorption, digestion, ingestion
  60. D. ingestion, digestion, absorption, egestion

    61. 18. The name and function of the enzyme found in saliva is

  61. A. lipase, which promotes fat digestion
  62. B. amylase, which initiates starch digestion
  63. C. pepsinogen, which initiates protein digestion
  64. D. rennin, which promotes milk protein digestion

    65. 19. Lactose intolerance is a disorder in which a person is unable to digest the milk sugar lactose. A person with lactose intolerance most likely lacks an enzyme called

  65. A. lipase
  66. B. lactase
  67. C. rennin
  68. D. secretin

    69. 20. The anatomical structure of the digestive system includes the so-called accessory glands that pour secretions into the digestive system to facilitate digestion. The glands are

  69. A. salivary glands, gall bladder, and pancreas
  70. B. pharynx, esophagus, and large intestine
  71. C. appendix, stomach, and duodenum
  72. D. liver, colon, and mouth

    73. 21. The pH of food entering the duodenum is changed from acidic to alkaline by

  73. A. gastric juices
  74. B. bile pigments
  75. C. intestinal enzymes
  76. D. pancreatic secretions

    77. 22. Which list of functions best describes those of the large intestine?

  77. A. Absorb bile and useful enzymes, egest wastes, absorb amino acids and fatty acids
  78. B. Remove water, absorb bacteria which produce vitamins, digest cellulose and starch
  79. C. Egest indigestible substances, digest fats and cellulose, absorb useful substances especially water
  80. D. Soften cellulose for egestion, absorb vitamins and minerals, remove water, reservoir for solid wastes

    81. 23. Which food would be hard to digest if a person's gall bladder were removed?

  81. A. Fat
  82. B. Starch
  83. C. Protein
  84. D. Fatty acid

    85. 24. Vegetarians who avoid eating all meat and animal products have difficulty getting sufficient

  85. A. fat
  86. B. protein
  87. C. vitamin D
  88. D. vitamin B12

    89. 25. A major function of the large intestine is

  89. A. storage of bile
  90. B. digestion of protein
  91. C. absorption of water
  92. D. secretion of starch digesting juices

    93. 26. Villi are structural adaptations in the lining of the small intestine. Their function is to provide for the optimum

  93. A. elimination of wastes by the colon
  94. B. movement of chyme in the stomach
  95. C. digestion of food in the large intestine
  96. D. absorption of nutrients into the blood stream

    97. 27. The stomach wall is protected against the action of its own digestive juices by the

  97. A. formation of enzyme inhibitors by gastric glands
  98. B. production of a mucous layer over the stomach wall
  99. C. buffering action of substances produced by cells lining the stomach
  100. D. dilution of the digestive juices by fluids from saliva and the food itself

    101. 28. The end-products of lipid digestion are

  101. A. peptones
  102. B. amino acids
  103. C. monosaccharides
  104. D. fatty acids and glycerol

    105. 29. North Americans, whose diet is high in starches, sugars, and proteins, appear to have a high incidence of colon cancer, whereas Asians whose diet is high in cereal grains and vegetables have a much lower incidence of this cancer. Asians who move to North America become more prone to colon cancer than those in Asia. The best conclusion that can be drawn from this information is that

  105. A. North Americans are more susceptible to colon cancer than Asians
  106. B. a diet high in bulk cellulose tends to reduce the incidence of colon cancer
  107. C. the incidence of colon cancer is influenced by who you are, where you live and what you eat
  108. D. a high level of starches, sugars and proteins in the diet directly acts as a cancer-causing agent

    109. 30. In enzyme is

  109. A. carbohydrate
  110. B. lipid
  111. C. protein
  112. D. nucleic acid

    113. 31. The function of an enzyme is to

  113. A. cause chemical reactions that would not otherwise take place.
  114. B. change the rates of chemical reactions.
  115. C. control the equilibrium points of reactions.
  116. D. change the directions of reactions.

    117. 32. The enzyme sucrase acts on

  117. A. sucrose only
  118. B. sucrose and starch
  119. C. any disaccharide
  120. D. any organic monomer

    121. 33. Hydrogen cyanide binds to the active site of an enzyme that is part of the pathway that forms ATP in cells; in this way, it prevents the enzyme’s activity. Hence, hydrogen cyanide can best be described as a

  121. A. coenzyme
  122. B. cofactor
  123. C. competitive inhibitor
  124. D. allosteric modulator

    125. 34. An enzyme promotes a chemical reaction by

  125. A. lowering the energy of activation.
  126. B. causing the release of heat, which acts as a primer.
  127. C. changing the free energy difference between substrate and product
  128. D. increasing molecular motion and therefore increasing molecular collisions

    129. 35. In feedback inhibition, a metabolic pathway is switched off by

  129. A. a rise in temperature
  130. B. lack of a substrate
  131. C. accumulation of the end product
  132. D. competitive inhibition

    133. 36. Fill in the Blanks

    A substance that accelerates a chemical reaction, but itself remains unchanged when the reaction is over, is a _________________. In living things, most of these substances are known as _______________.

    A high fever is dangerous to a human because enzymes are __________________ by heat. This causes the shape of their ___________________ to change and therefore the enzyme can no longer function at optimum capacity.

    A metabolic pathway is a sequence of ________________, in which each step is controlled by its own specific ______________.

    Metabolism involves two kinds of processes: _____________ in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones, and _____________, in which larger molecules are built from smaller ones. During growth, the rate of the _______________ process exceeds the rate of the _______________ process.

37. Use the following terms

  1. A. Liver
  2. B. Pancreas
  3. C. Gall Bladder
  4. D. Stomach
  5. E. Microvilli in small intestines
  6. F. Esophagus
  7. G. Large Instestines
  8. H. Mouth

To Match the following statements

  1. ________storage of bile
  2. ________production of bile
  3. ________secretion of HCl
  4. ________stores food
  5. ________secretion of lipase
  6. ________grinds food
  7. ________secretion of sucrase
  8. ________mixes food
  9. ________secretion of trypsin
  10. ________moves food into the stomach
  11. ________secretion of pepsinogen
  12. ________detoxification of alcohol
  13. ________deamination of amino acids
  14. ________formation of clotting proteins
  15. ________production of vitamins B and K
  16. ________secretion of sodium bicarbonate
  17. ________organ which manufactures amylase secreted into the duodenum
  18. ________the organ which regulates blood glucose levels with insulin
  19. ________absorption of water and minerals
  20. ________secretion of amylase
  21. ________conversion of excess glucose into glycogen
  22. ________absorption of nutrients into the blood vessels
  23. ________storage and distribution of vitamins A, B12 and D
  24. ________conversion of glycogen into glucose when needed
  25. ________digestion of starch

38. Select True or False

  1. ________Secretin production is increased with an increased acidity of chyme (decreased pH)
  2. ________Bile is a hormone that affects the digestion of fatty acids in the liver.
  3. ________Most water used for digestion is reabsorbed by the lining of the large intestine
  4. ________Most lipids are absorbed into the lacteals that run through the villi of the small intestine.


Excretory System

1. Select True or False

  1. __________: Blood leaves the body from the bladder through the ureter.
  2. __________: The functional unit of the kidney is known as the nephron.
  3. __________: Glomerular filtration is influenced by arterial blood pressure.
  4. __________: ADH is produced in the hypothalamus and acts to decrease reabsorption of water in the nephron.
  5. __________: Urea is a nitrogenous waste produced by the liver when proteins are digested.
  6. __________: As water is reabsorbed by the nephron, the concentration of urine decreases.
  7. __________: Water is reabsorbed back into the body through active transport.
  8. __________: The body is able to reabsorb much of the glucose, vitamins and minerals that enter the filtrate through active transport.
  9. __________: The order of structures that urine passes through as it is produced it the nephron is kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra.
  10. __________: Persons suffering from diabetes insipidis have difficulty maintaining their blood sugar levels.

    2. The kidney is divided into three distinct layers. These layers are the

  1. A. cortex, medulla, renal pelvis
  2. B. cortex, ureter, medulla
  3. C. medulla, cortex, urethra
  4. D. urethra, ureter, bladder

    5. 3. The filtration-based coffee maker is similar to a process that occurs when

  5. A. capillaries between arteries and veins conduct blood
  6. B. urea is removed from the blood in the kidneys
  7. C. antibodies are formed in the kidneys
  8. D. insulin is produced by the pancreas

    9. 4. The process indicated in question 3 above occurs in the

  9. A. Glomerulus
  10. B. loop of Henle
  11. C. proximal convoluted tubule
  12. D. distal convoluted tubule

    13. 5. The greatest amount of reabsorption of nutrients from the nephron filtrate occurs in the

  13. A. proximal tubule
  14. B. distal tubule
  15. C. collecting ducts
  16. D. loop of Henle

    17. 6. The substance(s) in urine that is(are) similar to the coffee produced after filtration are water and

  17. A. amino acids
  18. B. glucose
  19. C. nutrients and nitrogenous wastes
  20. D. urea and uric acid only

    21. 7. In a healthy person, plasma proteins are

  21. A. absent in filtrate and urine
  22. B. present in filtrate and urine
  23. C. absent in filtrate and present in urine
  24. D. present in filtrate and absent in urine

    25. 8. A large amount of salt (sodium chloride) is reabsorbed by the kidney tubules due to the action of __________ which results in a __________ in the reabsorption of water

  25. A. aldosterone, increase
  26. B. ADH, increase
  27. C. aldosterone, decrease
  28. D. ADH, decrease

    29. 9. Which of the following substances would be found in the blood, but would not enter the Bowman’s capsule?

  29. A. Glucose
  30. B. Urea
  31. C. blood cells
  32. D. water

    33. The following is a list of processes that occur in the formation and excretion of urine:

  33. 1. storage of urine in the bladder
  34. 2. active transport of glucose from the nephron
  35. 3. filtration of materials into Bowman’s capsule
  36. 4. urination
  37. 5. reabsorption of water from the nephron

    38. 10. What is the correct sequence in which the above processes would occur?

  38. A. 3,2,5,1,4
  39. B. 1,3,2,5,4
  40. C. 5,2,3,1,4
  41. D. 2,1,3,5,4

    42. 11. The substances found in human blood that are similar to the coffee grounds in a coffee filter are

  42. A. proteins and cells
  43. B. glucose and amino acids
  44. C. urea and uric acid
  45. D. oxygen and wastes

    46. 12. A substance that would normally be found in of the nephron, but not in the loop of Henle is

  46. A. water
  47. B. urea
  48. C. sodium
  49. D. glucose

    50. 13. A substance normally found in the glomerulus of the nephron, but not in the Bowman's capsule is

  50. A. sodium
  51. B. urea
  52. C. plasma protein
  53. D. glucose

    54. Use the following list to answer the next question

  54. 1. urea
  55. 2. protein
  56. 3. water
  57. 4. sodium
  58. 5. glucose

    59. 14. The substance(s) that remain(s) in the blood after filtration has occurred is (are)

  59. A. 1, 2, and 5
  60. B. 2
  61. C. 1, 3, and 5
  62. D. 1, and 2

    63. 15. A patient with diabetes mellitus would have urine that has high concentrations of

  63. A. urea
  64. B. salt
  65. C. glucose
  66. D. hydrogen ions

    67. 16. The sequence of structures that a molecule of urea will pass through within a nephron is the

  67. A. proximal tubule, loop of Henle, collecting duct, distal tubule and Bowman’s capsule
  68. B. collecting duct, loop of Henle, distal tubule, Bowman’s capsule, proximal tubule
  69. C. glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, collecting duct
  70. D. loop of Henle, collecting duct, Bowman’s capsule, proximal tubule, distal tubule


Muscle and Skeletal System

    1. Muscle cells require energy. Which provides the greatest number of ATP’s?

  1. A. Fermentation
  2. B. Anaerobic cellular respiration
  3. C. Aerobic cellular respiration
  4. D. Creatine phosphate

    5. 2. The normal continuous unconscious contraction of muscle is described as

  5. A. Cramps
  6. B. Muscle Tone
  7. C. Muscular dystrophy
  8. D. Fatigue

    9. 3. Which of the following statements is true?

  9. A. A muscle can pull and push
  10. B. Muscle is composed of proteins
  11. C. The basic unit of muscle is actin
  12. D. There are four basic types of muscle

    13. 4. _________ join muscle to bone. _______ join bone to bone.

  13. A. Cartilage; tendons
  14. B. Ligaments; tendons
  15. C. Tendons; ligaments
  16. D. Tendons; cartilage

    17. 5. Muscle is based upon a ‘sliding filament model’. The main sliding filaments are

  17. A. Actin and myosin
  18. B. Tropomyosin and troponin
  19. C. Calcium and troponin
  20. D. Myofibril and myosin

    21. 6. Which element is essential for a muscle contraction?

  21. A. Calcium
  22. B. Iron
  23. C. Magnesium
  24. D. Copper

    25. 7. Which filament must be moved away from the binding sites before a muscle contraction can

    occur?
  25. A. Actin
  26. B. Myosin
  27. C. Tropomyosin
  28. D. Troponin


Respiratory System

    1. Which statement correctly describes the control of the breathing rate?

  1. A. The brain controls the breathing rate by monitoring the blood oxygen concentration.
  2. B. The heart controls the breathing rate by monitoring the blood oxygen concentration.
  3. C. The brain controls the breathing rate by monitoring the blood carbon dioxide concentration.
  4. D. The heart controls the breathing rate by monitoring the blood carbon dioxide concentration.

    5. 2. A poisonous, odourless gas which interferes with ability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen is called

  5. A. Nitrogen
  6. B. Hydrogen
  7. C. Carbon dioxide
  8. D. Carbon monoxide

    9. 3. In treating victims of carbon monoxide poisoning, artificial respiration is first applied in the open air, followed by the administration of a mixture of 93% oxygen and 7% carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide

  9. A. Stimulates the breathing centre
  10. B. Increases the diffusion of oxygen
  11. C. Displaces the carbon monoxide on the hemoglobin
  12. D. Increases the diffusion of carbon dioxide out of the lungs

    13. 4. It is impossible to commit suicide by holding your breath because

  13. A. Muscles which control breathing get tired and relax
  14. B. Decrease in oxygen concentration causes production of red blood cells
  15. C. Carbon dioxide buildup stimulates the involuntary control centre in the medulla oblongata
  16. D. The decrease in oxygen concentration stimulates heart muscles to increase the rate of circulation

    17. 5. To which part of the respiratory system is the epiglottis attached?

  17. A. Larynx
  18. B. Pharynx
  19. C. Bronchioles
  20. D. Nasal cavity

    21. 6. After being in a poorly ventilated room for an hour with many other students, a student noticed that his rate of breathing had increased. The most probable reason for this increase is that the

  21. A. Room air had become hot
  22. B. Carbon monoxide levels in the room air increased
  23. C. Carbon dioxide levels in the room had increased and oxygen levels decreased
  24. D. Moisture from the breathing of the persons in the room made breathing difficult

    25. 7. The structure which prevents food particles from entering the air passage is the

  25. A. Larynx
  26. B. Trachea
  27. C. Pharynx
  28. D. Epiglottis

    29. 8. Which one of the following is the principal carrier of oxygen from the lungs to the body cells?

  29. A. Plasma
  30. B. Platelets
  31. C. Red blood cells
  32. D. White blood cells

    33. 9. The increase in breathing rate during intensive muscular exercise is mainly due to the

  33. A. Low oxygen levels in the blood
  34. B. High oxygen levels in the blood
  35. C. Low concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood
  36. D. High concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood

    37. 10. Which of the following structures of the respiratory system are contained within the thorax?

  37. A. Pharynx, bronchi, trachea
  38. B. Larynx, pharynx, nasal cavity
  39. C. Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
  40. D. Larynx, bronchioles, pharynx

    41. 11. The average vital capacity of adult human lungs is about

  41. A. 1500 mL
  42. B. 6.5 L
  43. C. 4 mL
  44. D. 4 L

    45. 12. What structures in the respiratory system are directly connected by the bronchi?

  45. A. Pharynx and alveoli
  46. B. Trachea and pharynx
  47. C. Larynx and bronchioles
  48. D. Trachea and bronchioles

    49. 13. How do the diaphragm and the rib cage function during exhalation?

  49. A. The diaphragm relaxes and the rib cage moves upward and outward.
  50. B. The diaphragm flattens and the rib cage moves upward and outward.
  51. C. The diaphragm relaxes and the rib cage moves downward and inward.
  52. D. The diaphragm flattens and the rib cage moves downward and inward.

    53. 14. Which structure of the air tube system contains the vocal cords?

  53. A. Larynx
  54. B. Pharynx
  55. C. Bronchi
  56. D. Bronchioles

    57. 15. In what location in the respiratory tract is air warmed, cleaned, and moistened?

  57. A. Trachea
  58. B. Pharynx
  59. C. Bronchioles
  60. D. Nasal cavity

    61. Major Structures of Upper Respiratory System

  61. 1. Larynx
  62. 2. Bronchioles
  63. 3. Pharynx
  64. 4. Bronchi
  65. 5. Trachea
  66. 6. Nasal cavity

    67. 16. Through what sequence of structures does air flow in order to reach the alveoli in the lungs?

  67. A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
  68. B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
  69. C. 3, 6, 5, 4, 1, 2
  70. D. 6, 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

    71. 17. Which of the following respiratory structures has walls that are one cell in thickness and a very rich supply of blood?

  71. A. Alveoli
  72. B. Trachea
  73. C. Bronchi
  74. D. Bronchioles

    75. 18. What is one thing that happens during inhalation?

  75. A. The alveoli are relaxed.
  76. B. The diaphragm is contracted.
  77. C. The intercostal muscles are relaxed.
  78. D. The lung pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure.

    79. 19. The muscular action during inspiration is best illustrated as follows.

  79. A. Relaxation of the diaphragm and relaxation of intercostal muscles
  80. B. Contraction of the diaphragm and contraction of intercostal muscles
  81. C. Contraction of the diaphragm and relaxation of muscles in the lungs
  82. D. Relaxation of the diaphragm and contraction of muscles in the lungs

    83. 20. Oxygen is used by the human body during

  83. A. Breathing
  84. B. Cellular respiration
  85. C. Getting rid of carbon dioxide
  86. D. Anaerobic respiration of food

    87. 21. The amount of carbon dioxide in inhaled air is 0.04% and the amount in exhaled air could be about

  87. A. 0.002%
  88. B. 0.04%
  89. C. 4.0%
  90. D. 20.0%

    91. 22. The substance found in the highest concentration in the plasma of the blood leaving the lungs is

  91. A. Hydrogen ions
  92. B. Bicarbonate ions
  93. C. Oxyhemoglobin
  94. D. Carboxyhemoglobin

    95. 23. What is the name of the process by which gases in the lung alveoli are exchanged with gases in the capillaries?

  95. A. Osmosis
  96. B. Filtration
  97. C. Diffusion
  98. D. Active transport


The Immune System

    1. Select True or False

  1. __________ Antibodies are proteins that stimulate an immune response and are found on the surface of cells.
  2. __________ B-cells produce antibodies which react with antigens to aid in the immune response.
  3. __________ The function of a suppressor T-cell is to retain information about the structure of an antigen.
  4. __________ The body’s first line of defense involves the skin and mucus membranes.
  5. __________ Macrophages engulf bacteria through a process known as phagocytosis.
  6. __________ T-cells are produced in the thymus gland.
  7. __________ Helper T-cells identify foreign antigens and pass chemical messages along to B-cells.
  8. __________ Vaccination is effective because a weakened microbe is inserted into the body and the memory T-cells retain information about the antigen structure.
  9. __________ Antibiotics such as penicillin are becoming less effective when treating bacterial infections.
  10. __________ Erythrocytes are responsible for blood clotting and wound healing
  11. __________ Type O blood is considered to be a universal donor.

    12. 2. Antibodies stick to more that one antigen forming an antigen-antibody complex. The purpose of this is to

  12. A. allow bacteria easier access to invading the body and being detected
  13. B. immobilize the invaders so they can not continue invading the body
  14. C. stimulate the release of antibodies from helper T-cells
  15. D. allow for the immune system to retain a memory of the antigen shape.

    16. 3. Hemoglobin is an iron-containing respiratory pigment found in

  16. A. erythrocytes
  17. B. leukocytes
  18. C. thrombocytes
  19. D. plasma

    20. 4. Blood is composed of

  20. A. 54% red blood cells, 1% white blood cells and 45% plasma
  21. B. 55% plasma, 1% red blood cells, 44% white blood cells
  22. C. 55% white blood cells, 44 % plasma, 1% red blood cells
  23. D. 55% plasma, 1% white blood cells, 44% red blood cells.

    24. 5. Which one of the following situations would be beneficial for the recipient?

  24. A. a Type A person receives a transfusion from a Type B person
  25. B. a Type B person receives a transfusion from a Type A person
  26. C. a Type A person receives a transfusion from a Type O person
  27. D. a Type O person receives a transfusion from a Type AB person

    28. 6. If a mother is blood type A Rh- and her baby is blood type B Rh+, their blood types will be incompatible. This is because

  28. A. the mother has Rh antigens and the baby does not
  29. B. the mother does not have Rh antigens and the baby does
  30. C. the mother has type A blood and no Rh antigens and the baby has type B blood and Rh antigens
  31. D. the mother has type A blood and Rh antigens and the baby has type B blood and no Rh antigens

    32. 7. Anemia is indicated in a patients blood sample when the levels of hemoglobin fall below 15 g/100mL. Normal hemoglobin levels are about 34 g/100mL. A symptom of anemia would be -

  32. A. prolonged blood clotting
  33. B. more energy
  34. C. less energy
  35. D. delayed immune response

    36. 8. The body’s B-cells produce __________ which react to __________ on the surface of cells to begin the immune response.

  36. A. antibodies, antigens
  37. B. antigens, antibodies
  38. C. antibodies, antibodies
  39. D. antigens, antigens

    40. 9. After T-cells are produced, they migrate to the

  40. A. bone marrow
  41. B. liver
  42. C. spleen
  43. D. thymus gland


The Endocrine System

    1. Which gland produces a hormone that directly increases blood supply to skeletal muscles and increases the rate of contraction of heart muscle?

  1. A. Pancreas
  2. B. Adrenal gland
  3. C. Thyroid gland
  4. D. Pituitary gland

    5. 2. Which sequence illustrates a mechanism used by the body to control the blood glucose level?

  5. A. Blood glucose increases -> release of glucagon increases -> conversion of glycogen into glucose decreases -> blood glucose decreases
  6. B. Blood glucose decreases -> release of glucagon decreases -> conversion of glycogen into glucose decreases -> blood glucose increases
  7. C. Blood glucose increases -> release of insulin increases -> conversion of glucose into glycogen increases -> blood glucose decreases
  8. D. Blood glucose decreases -> release of insulin decreases -> conversion of glucose into glycogen increases -> blood glucose increases

    9. Use the following information to answer the next question.

    Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland or hypothalamus resulting in decreased secretion of a specific hormone. This disorder is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of urine and subsequent dehydration and thirst. A person with diabetes insipidus can be treated by inhaling a spray containing the hormone that is deficient. The spray is inhaled several times a day.

    3. The inhaled spray would likely contain

  9. A. Insulin
  10. B. Glucagon
  11. C. Aldosterone
  12. D. Antidiuretic hormone

    13. Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

    When the Chernobyl nuclear reactor in Ukraine melted down, clouds of radioactive material, including iodine, were released into the atmosphere. Iodine is actively absorbed by a certain gland in the body. Scientists were worried that the radioactive iodine would cause tumours in this gland. In an attempt to avoid this problem, people who lived near the reactor were given large doses of non-radioactive iodine.

    4. How would the ingestion of large doses of non-radioactive iodine reduce a person’s chances of getting a tumor in a particular gland?

  13. A. The pituitary would become saturated with non-radioactive iodine and this would limit the absorption of radioactive iodine.
  14. B. The thyroid would become saturated with non-radioactive iodine and this would limit the absorption of radioactive iodine.
  15. C. Increased levels of iodine would stimulate hormonal production by the pituitary and limit tumor formation.
  16. D. Increased levels of iodine would stimulate hormonal production by the thyroid and limit tumor formation.

    17. 5. If a tumor caused increased secretion of thyroxine, which symptoms would likely be experienced by an affected person?

  17. A. Increased body temperature and increased metabolic rate
  18. B. Increased body temperature and decreased metabolic rate
  19. C. Decreased body temperature and increased metabolic rate
  20. D. Decreased body temperature and decreased metabolic rate

    21. 6. The pituitary hormone ACTH regulates the production of aldosterone by the cortex of the adrenal glands. A severe drop in ACTH levels would likely result in

  21. A. Decreased sodium ion retention and increased water loss because aldosterone levels would rise
  22. B. Decreased sodium ion retention and increased water loss because aldosterone levels would drop
  23. C. Increased sodium ion retention and increased water retention because aldosterone levels would rise
  24. D. Increased sodium ion retention and increased water retention because aldosterone levels would drop

    25. 7. A person who occasionally experienced paralysis was examined and found to have very low levels of potassium in the blood and other tissues. The paralysis likely resulted because of the inability of

  25. A. Capillaries to provide adequate blood flow
  26. B. Axon terminals to break down acetylcholine
  27. C. Neurons to repolarize during the refractory period
  28. D. Neurons to remove acetylcholine from the synapse

    29. 8. Which of the following statements regarding pituitary hormones is false?

  29. A. The hypothalamus makes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are transported the posterior pituitary for storage.
  30. B. Antidiuretic hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, causes urine volume to increase and blood volume to decrease.
  31. C. Luteinizing hormone, an anterior pituitary hormone, triggers ovulation of an egg from the ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to produce progesterone and some estrogens.
  32. D. Hyposecretion of follicle-stimulating hormone or luteinizing hormone leads to sterility in both males and females.
  33. E. (B) and (C)

    34. 9. Androgens are produced by the _______.

  34. A. Ovaries.
  35. B. Testes.
  36. C. Hypothalamus.
  37. D. Islets of Langerhans.

    38. 10. One of the two hormones made by the pituitary that help regulate reproductive cells is luteinizing hormone. The other hormone is _______.

  38. A. Androgens
  39. B. Follicle stimulating hormone
  40. C. Epinephrine
  41. D. Norepinephrine

    42. 11. Calcium level in the blood is regulated by the:

  42. A. Parathyroid and thyroid
  43. B. Adrenal medulla and pancreas
  44. C. Testes
  45. D. Parathyroid and thymus

    46. 12. Which one of the following is NOT typical of the changes that follow the binding of a hormone to its target cells:

  46. A. Plasma membrane permeability changes
  47. B. Cellular mutations occur
  48. C. Enzymes are activated or inactivated
  49. D. Mitosis is stimulated

    50. 13. In humans, when iodine levels are adequate, abnormally high TSH secretion would likely result in

  50. A. Nervousness and weight gain
  51. B. Nervousness and weight loss
  52. C. Sleepiness and weight gain
  53. D. Sleepiness and weight loss

    54. 14. During an emergency situation, the adrenal gland is stimulated to release a hormone that directly causes an increase in

  54. A. Insulin levels
  55. B. Blood glucose levels
  56. C. Parasympathetic stimulation
  57. D. Conversion of glucose to glycogen

    58. 15. A hormone that regulates glucose levels in the blood and a hormone that regulates Na+ in the blood and, indirectly, water reabsorption by the kidneys are, respectively,

  58. A. Aldosterone and insulin
  59. B. Glucagon and aldosterone
  60. C. Epinephrine and glucagon
  61. D. Insulin and antidiuretic hormone

    62. 16. A condition that results in an enlargement of the thyroid gland may be caused by a diet deficient in

  62. A. Iron
  63. B. Iodine
  64. C. Sodium
  65. D. Potassium

    66. 17. The secretions from which of these glands differs between males and females?

  66. A. Adrenal.
  67. B. Parathyroid.
  68. C. Gonadal.
  69. D. Pancreas.

    70. 18. The two regulatory systems of the body are the endocrine system and the _______.

  70. A. Nervous system
  71. B. Immune system
  72. C. Circulatory system
  73. D. Respiratory system
  74. E. Skeletal system

    75. 19. Why can a single endocrine hormone produce a wider spread of responses in more of the body than a single nerve cell?

  75. A. A single hormone can target many different responses, whereas a nerve only targets a single response.
  76. B. Blood can carry all the same hormones throughout the body simultaneously, producing responses all over the body; nerve cells can only target a small number of cells.
  77. C. Nerve cells and blood work together. The endocrine has nothing to do with the nervous system.
  78. D. Endocrine hormones only target a very small number of precise responses.

    79. 20. Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?

  79. A. Anterior pituitary
  80. B. Thyroid
  81. C. Adrenal medulla
  82. D. Pancreas

    83. 21. Which of the following produce antagonistic results?

  83. A. Calcitonin and parathryroid hormone
  84. B. FSH and LH
  85. C. ADH and vasopressin
  86. D. Oxytocin and prolactin

    87. 22. Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT:

  87. A. Catalyze cyclic AMP
  88. B. Diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells
  89. C. Enter the nucleus
  90. D. Activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis

    91. 23. Estrogens and progesterone are produced by:

  91. A. The testes.
  92. B. The ovaries.
  93. C. The adrenal glands.
  94. D. The hypothalamus.

    95. 24. Failure of the pituitary to stop producing growth hormone after body growth is completed results in _______.

  95. A. Gigantism
  96. B. Tetany
  97. C. Kidney failure
  98. D. Acromegaly

    99. 25. Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:

  99. A. Hormonal stimulus
  100. B. Humoral stimulus
  101. C. Neural stimulus
  102. D. Receptor-mediated stimulus

    103. 26. Tropic hormones:

  103. A. Stimulate the pineal gland to secrete hormones
  104. B. Stimulate the thymus gland to secrete hormones
  105. C. Stimulate other endocrines glands to secrete hormones
  106. D. Stimulate nervous tissue

    107. 27. The body’s major metabolic hormone is released from the:

  107. A. Pituitary
  108. B. Thyroid
  109. C. Thymus
  110. D. Hypothalamus

    111. 28. Damage to which of the following endocrine glands would most affect the reaction of the body to an emergency that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?

  111. A. Thyroid gland
  112. B. Adrenal gland
  113. C. Anterior pituitary gland
  114. D. Posterior pituitary gland

    115. 29. If you drank a liter of water very quickly, the result would be

  115. A. Increased secretion of oxytocin
  116. B. Decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone
  117. C. Decreased secretion of oxytocin
  118. D. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone

    119. 30. How is hormone secretion regulated?

  119. A. By the nervous system
  120. B. By other hormones
  121. C. By changes in blood composition
  122. D. All of the above

    123. 31. Target cells for hypothalamic releasing hormones are in the

  123. A. Thyroid
  124. B. Hypothalamus
  125. C. Anterior pituitary
  126. D. Posterior pituitary

    127. 32. The posterior pituitary gland stores and secretes

  127. A. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
  128. B. Human growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone
  129. C. Prolactin and follicle stimulating hormone
  130. D. Glucocorticoids and androgens

    131. 33. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland?

  131. A. TSH from the posterior pituitary gland
  132. B. high levels of calcium in the blood
  133. C. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland
  134. D. low levels of calcium in the blood

    135. 34. The release of cortisol is stimulated by

  135. A. Aldosterone
  136. B. Angiotensin
  137. C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
  138. D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

    139. 35. The release of thyroxine from the thyroid is directly regulated by

  139. A. TSH
  140. B. TRH
  141. C. Iodine
  142. D. Thyroxine

    143. 36. A characteristic symptom of hyperthyroidism, a disorder of the thyroid gland, is

  143. A. Lethargy
  144. B. Weight loss
  145. C. Intolerance to cold
  146. D. Slowed mental processes

    147. 37. Which of the following hormones plays a role in returning the salt concentration in the blood to homeostatic levels following heavy exercise?

  147. A. Cortisol
  148. B. Thyroxine
  149. C. Aldosterone
  150. D. Epinephrine

    151. 38. Most of the endocrine system is regulated by:

  151. A. Negative feedback mechanisms.
  152. B. Positive feedback mechanisms.
  153. C. Hormone-receptor complexes.
  154. D. Hormone-gene complexes.

    155. 39. Nervousness, increased body temperature, and increased blood-pressure are indications of _______.

  155. A. Diabetes mellitus
  156. B. Hypoglycemia
  157. C. Hypothyroidism
  158. D. Hyperthyroidism

    159. 40. The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete _______ which targets the _______.

  159. A. Glucagon; liver
  160. B. Melatonin; liver
  161. C. Glucagon; kidney
  162. D. Calcitonin; thyroid

    163. 41. The growth hormone produced by the pituitary gland is known as _______.

  163. A. Somatotropin
  164. B. Prolactin
  165. C. Luteinizing hormone
  166. D. Follicle-stimulating hormone

    167. 42. The rate of metabolism of all body cells is regulated by _______.

  167. A. Parathyroid hormone
  168. B. Aldosterone
  169. C. Calcitonin
  170. D. Thyroid hormone

    171. 43. The relatively constant internal environment of the body is maintained by _______.

  171. A. Negative feedback.
  172. B. Positive feedback.
  173. C. Homeostasis.
  174. D. Metabolism.


The Nervous System

    1. Sensory and motor neurons of the peripheral nervous system transmit impulses between muscles and the

  1. A. Parasympathetic nervous system
  2. B. Sympathetic nervous system
  3. C. Central nervous system
  4. D. Endocrine system

    5. 2. Which sequence correctly shows the path of sound transmission in the ear?

  5. A. Tympanic membrane -> eustachian tube -> semicircular canals -> cochlea
  6. B. Tympanic membrane -> semicircular canals -> eustachian tube -> cochlea
  7. C. Auditory canal -> ossicles -> tympanic membrane -> organ of Corti
  8. D. Auditory canal -> tympanic membrane -> ossicles -> organ of Corti

    9. 3. A person with a vitamin A deficiency may have night blindness. The glare from the headlights of an approaching car will temporarily reduce that person’s visual capacity. The primary structures associated with this change are the

  9. A. Cornea and lens
  10. B. Retina and rod cells
  11. C. Fovea and blind spot
  12. D. Choroid and cone cells

    13. Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

    More than 4 000 Gulf War veterans complain of illness (Gulf War Syndrome). The veterans’ symptoms include joint pain, shortness of breath, attention and memory problems, and chronic fatigue. During the war, most of the veterans took anti-nerve-gas pills. These pills contain pyridostigmine bromide, a drug that inhibits cholinesterase. Pyridostigmine bromide is also used to treat patients with myasthenia gravis, an inherited disorder characterized by weakness of skeletal muscles.

    4. The role of cholinesterase in neural transmission is to

  13. A. Increase the rate of nerve impulse transmission
  14. B. Promote the breakdown of a neurotransmitter
  15. C. Increase the sensitivity of neural membranes
  16. D. Promote the synthesis of a neurotransmitter

    17. 5. Considering that the symptoms of Gulf War Syndrome include attention and memory problems, it is likely that pyridostigmine bromide has an effect on the

  17. A. Cerebrum
  18. B. Cerebellum
  19. C. Hypothalamus
  20. D. Medulla oblongata

    21. 6. In myasthenia gravis, a malfunction of neuromuscular synapses occurs. The information presented above indicates that the muscular weakness associated with this disorder occurs because

  21. A. Axons secrete excess acetylcholine
  22. B. Axons secrete insufficient acetylcholine
  23. C. Of increased permeability of membranes to sodium ions
  24. D. Of decreased permeability of membranes to potassium ions

    25. Use the following information to answer the next question.

    Scientists had long assumed that the brain could not produce new cells. However, two researchers at the University of Calgary have successfully produced new brain tissue by using an unspecialized brain cell known as a stem cell. This stem cell acts as a “mother” cell to produce healthy brain tissue, in vitro.

    7. Before this research, the assumption that brain cells could not regenerate was based upon which characteristic of axons?

  25. A. Axons of the peripheral nervous system are surrounded by a neurilemma.
  26. B. Axons of the central nervous system are surrounded by a neurilemma.
  27. C. Axons of the peripheral nervous system lack a neurilemma.
  28. D. Axons of the central nervous system lack a neurilemma.

    29. Use the following information to answer the next question.

    Parkinson’s disease destroys certain neurons in the brain. One treatment for Parkinson’s disease is to transplant fetal brain tissue into a patient to replace neurons destroyed by the disease.

    8. Which is a likely reason why fetal brain tissue, rather than brain tissue from an adult donor, is used to treat Parkinson’s disease?

  29. A. Fetal neurons can undergo meiosis but adult neurons cannot.
  30. B. Fetal neurons can undergo mitosis but adult neurons cannot.
  31. C. Adult neurons are more complex than fetal neurons.
  32. D. Adult neurons are much larger than fetal neurons.

    33. 9. Relative to inside of a neuron, the extracellular fluid immediately outside a resting neuron’s cell membrane is

  33. A. Positive and the sodium ion concentration is less
  34. B. Negative and the sodium ion concentration is less
  35. C. Positive and the sodium ion concentration is greater
  36. D. Negative and the sodium ion concentration is greater

    37. 10. Returning involuntary body functions to normal after a period of stress is the function of which division of the nervous system?

  37. A. Central
  38. B. Somatic
  39. C. Sympathetic
  40. D. Parasympathetic

    41. 11. When adaptation of the eye occurs to view objects in a dark room,

  41. A. The pupil increases in size and the rods become active
  42. B. The pupil decreases in size and the rods become active
  43. C. The pupil increases in size and the cones become active
  44. D. The pupil decreases in size and the cones become active

    45. 12. Nerve impulse transmission continues along the nerve cell membrane as

  45. A. A wave of depolarization
  46. B. A negative feedback loop
  47. C. A diffusing wave of summation
  48. D. The active transport of an electrical potential

    49. 13. The part of the ear directly responsible for stimulating the nerve endings that transmit sound impulses from the ear to the brain is the

  49. A. Cochlea
  50. B. Eardrum
  51. C. Eustachian tube
  52. D. Semicircular canal

    53. 14. Stimulation of an individual’s sympathetic nervous system in response to imminent danger leads to all of the following responses except

  53. A. Dilation of the pupils of the eyes
  54. B. Constriction of the bronchioles of the lungs
  55. C. Constriction of the arterioles of the intestines
  56. D. Dilation of the arterioles of the skeletal muscles

    57. Use the following information to answer the next question.

    Certain compounds known as opiates (opium, morphine, and codeine) are addictive drugs. Scientists have found that opiates work by binding to specific sites in the brain that interpret perceptions of pleasure and pain.

    15. A likely explanation of how receptors in the human brain are stimulated by opiates is that opiates

  57. A. Bind to neurotransmitters
  58. B. Act in the same way as cholinesterase
  59. C. Increase the strength of action potentials
  60. D. Have molecular shapes similar to a neurotransmitter

    61. 16. When individuals participate in extreme sports, their neurons release more dopamine, which results in a pleasurable sensation because

  61. A. Less serotonin is released from neurons
  62. B. More dopamine receptors are produced
  63. C. The fight-or-flight response is inhibited
  64. D. A neuron containing dopamine receptors reaches threshold depolarization

    65. 17. What would happen if acetylcholine was released at a synapse, but no cholinesterase was present?

  65. A. The acetylcholine would fail to stimulate the postsynaptic neuron.
  66. B. The acetylcholine would diffuse more rapidly across the synaptic cleft.
  67. C. A single nerve impulse would be generated in the postsynaptic neuron.
  68. D. The postsynaptic neuron would remain in a constant state of depolarization.


Population Genetics

    1. Twenty-five percent of the offspring of a certain pair of white sheep are black. If the white is dominant to black, what was the genotype of the parents?

    2. In humans, wavy hair is dominant over straight hair. What possible genotypes and phenotypes can occur in the offspring where one parent is heterozygous for wavy hair and the other has straight hair?

    3. Bronze turkeys have at least one dominant allele R. Red turkeys are homozygous for its recessive allele rr. Another dominant gene H produces normal feathers and the recessive genotype hh produces feathers lacking webbing, a condition termed hairy. In crosses between homozygous bronze, hairy birds and homozygous red normal feathers, what proportion of the F2 progeny will be:

  1. genotype Rrhh
  2. phenotype bronze, hairy
  3. genotype rrHH
  4. phenotype red, normal feathers
  5. genotype RrHh
  6. phenotype bronze, normal feathered
  7. genotype RRHh

    8. 4. In a certain organism, one chromatid contains the genes A and b. Its homologous chromatid contains a and B.

  8. a) What combinations of genes would be found in gametes of this organism if no crossing over occurs? Draw the chromatids as they would appear in metaphase I and after meiosis II.
  9. b) What combination of genes would be found in gametes if crossing over does occur? Draw the chromatids as they would appear in metaphase I and after meiosis II.

    10. 5. A cross between two sweet pea plants produced 39 plants with pink flowers (incomplete dominance), 18 with white flowers and 19 with red flowers. What are the phenotypes of the parents?

    6. In humans, the sex-linked gene for normal blood clotting, H is dominant to the gene for hemophilia, h. A woman with normal blood clotting has four children: a normal son, a hemophiliac son and two normal daughters. The father has normal blood clotting. What is the probable genotype of each member of the family?

    7. In sheep, crosses between homozygous earless and homozygous normal always result in an intermediate, small-eared condition. When a series of matings are made between F1 rams and ewes, 79 small-eared, 42 earless, and 37 normal progeny result. If one of the F2 small-eared individuals is mated with a normal partner, what is the chance of getting an abnormal lamb? an earless lamb?

    8. Black coat cocker spaniels is determined by a dominant allele B and a brown coat color by its recessive allele b. Solid pattern is determined by the dominant allele of and independent chromosome, S, and spotted pattern by its recessive allele s. A solid male is mated to a solid brown female and produces a litter of six pups: two solid black, two solid brown, one black and white, one brown and white. Determine the genotypes of the parents

    9. A normal-visions man of blood group A marries a normal visioned woman of blood group A. They have two children, a color-blind boy of blood group A and a normal visioned girl of blood group O. What were the genotypes of the parents?

    10. Normal leg size in cattle is produced by the homozygous genotype DD. Short-legged cattle possess the heterozygous genotype, Dd. The homozygous genotype dd is lethal, producing grossly deformed dead calves. The presence of horns in cattle is governed by the recessive allele of another gene, p, the polled condition (absence of horns) is produced by its dominant allele, P. In matings between heterozygous polled, short legged cattle, what is the phenotypic ratio expected in the ADULT progeny?

    11. In summer squash, white fruit color is dominant, W, and yellow fruit color is recessive, w. A dominant allele at another locus, S, produces disc shaped fruit, and its recessive allele, s, produces sphere-shaped fruit. If a true breeding white disc variety is crossed with a homozygous yellow sphere variety, the F1 are all white disc hybrids. If the F1 is allowed to mate at random, what would be the phenotypic ratio expected in the F2 generation?

    12. The shape of radishes may be long LL, round L'L' or oval LL'. Color may be red, RR, white R'R' or purple RR'. If a long, white strain is crossed with a round, red stem, what phenotypic ratios are expected in the F2 progeny?

    13. Suppose that alien genetics mimics human genetics. Purple eyes, P, are dominant to yellow eyes, p. Two purple-eyed aliens mate and produce six offspring. Four of them have purple eyes and two have yellow eyes. What are the genotypes of the parent? the phenotypes of the parents? What are the genotypes of the offspring?

    14. Suppose two newborn babies were accidentally mixed up at the hospital, and there was a question of which baby belonged to which parents. From the following blood type, determine and explain which baby belongs to which parents:

  10. Baby 1 type O
  11. Baby 2 type A
  12. Mrs. Brown type B
  13. Mr. Brown type AB
  14. Mrs. Smith type B
  15. Mr. Smith type B

    16. 15. A narrow reduced eye, B, is the dominant X linked condition in fruit flies. The full red eye is produced by its recessive allele, b. A homozygous wild-type female is mated to a reduced eye male. Determine the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios.



Community Dynamics

    1. The sheep liver fluke is an organism that lives in the intestines, liver, brain, and lungs of sheep and causes tissue damage in these organs. Which statement best describes the likely effect of a severe infestation of sheep liver flukes on a sheep population?

  1. A. Commensalism would reduce the carrying capacity of the sheep population.
  2. B. Parasitism would reduce the carrying capacity of the sheep population.
  3. C. Commensalism would reduce the density of the sheep population.
  4. D. Parasitism would reduce the density of the sheep population.

    5. 2. In a randomly mating population of Drosophila, 4% of the flies have black bodies (an autosomal, recessive trait) and 96% have brown bodies. This population is assumed to be in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. If a researcher samples 10 000 Drosophila from this population, the number of flies expected to be homozygous dominant for body colour is

  5. A. 400
  6. B. 3 200
  7. C. 6 400
  8. D. 9 600

    9. 3. The relationship between humans and Plasmodium falciparum (The parasite that causes Malaria) is called

  9. A. Parasitism
  10. B. Mutualism
  11. C. Competition
  12. D. Commensalism

    13. 4. C.F.M. Synnerton, a naturalist in Zimbabwe, studied how eyespots on the wings of butterflies protected the butterflies from predation by sparrows. By moving its wings, the butterfly makes the eyespots resemble the eyes of an owl, a natural predator of sparrows. The presence of eyespots on the wings of butterflies is an example of

  13. A. Mimicry
  14. B. Mutualism
  15. C. Camouflage
  16. D. Competition

    17. 5. In winter, snowshoe hares found in Jasper National Park create pathways in the snow between feeding and resting sites. These travel lanes are then used by porcupines, making the porcupines' movement through deep snow easier.

    What relationship exists between the snowshoe hare and the porcupine?

  17. A. Mutualism
  18. B. Predator-prey
  19. C. Commensalism
  20. D. Intraspecific competition


Molecular Biology

    1. Meiosis occurs when..

  1. A. An egg and a sperm fuse to form a zygote
  2. B. A mature polyp produces a medusa
  3. C. A planula produces a young polyp
  4. D. A medusa produces gametes

    5. 2. One difference between mitosis and meiosis is that, during mitosis,

  5. A. One replication of chromosomes and one division occurs
  6. B. One replication of chromosomes and two divisions occur
  7. C. Two replications of chromosomes and one division occurs
  8. D. Two replications of chromosomes and two divisions occur

    9. 3. The chromosome Number of a Horse, Equus caballus is 66 (2n). Starting from a single cell, spermatogenesis in horses produces

  9. A. One cell with 33 chromosomes
  10. B. Two cells, each with 66 chromosomes
  11. C. Four cells, each with 33 chromosomes
  12. D. Three cells, each with 22 chromosomes

    13. 4. Which expression of chromosome content represents somatic cells in people with trisomy disorders such as Down syndrome?

  13. A. n - 1
  14. B. n + 1
  15. C. 2n - 1
  16. D. 2n + 1

    17. 5. To obtain all the representative DNA of an organism, it would be necessary to collect only

  17. A. An egg
  18. B. A sperm
  19. C. A body cell
  20. D. A cell from each type of body tissue

    21. 6. One aspect of meiosis that is different from mitosis, is that normally by the end of meiosis

  21. A. Two diploid cells result
  22. B. Four diploid cells result
  23. C. Two haploid cells result
  24. D. Four haploid cells result

    25. 7. As cells age, there is an increase in DNA damage and a decrease in DNA repair processes. The initial effect is

  25. A. A decrease in ATP synthesis
  26. B. An increase of cancerous cells
  27. C. The production of altered proteins
  28. D. The production of abnormal mRNA

    29. 8. Certain disorders result if an extra chromosome is present in all nucleated cells of the body (trisomy) or if a chromosome is missing from all nucleated cells of the body (monosomy). These disorders arise because of nondisjunction, a malfunction that occurs during

  29. A. DNA replication
  30. B. RNA transcription
  31. C. Telophase of mitosis
  32. D. Anaphase of meiosis

    33. 9. DNA is structurally different from RNA in that DNA

  33. A. Contains uracil and is composed of double strands
  34. B. Contains adenine and is composed of single strands
  35. C. Contains guanine and is composed of single strands
  36. D. Contains thymine and is composed of double strands

    37. 10. Analysis of a DNA sample showed that 15% of the nitrogen-base molecules present were adenine molecules. This sample would likely contain

  37. A. 15% thymine
  38. B. 15% uracil
  39. C. 85% thymine
  40. D. 85% uracil

    41. 11. The nucleus of a human oocyte would normally be

  41. A. Diploid and contain 23 chromosomes
  42. B. Diploid and contain 46 chromosomes
  43. C. Haploid and contain 23 chromosomes
  44. D. Haploid and contain 46 chromosomes


Human Reproduction

    1. RU-486 is a drug that inhibits the action of progesterone. Hormones called prostaglandins cause the cervix to soften and dilate. Administering RU-486 and prostaglandins to a woman during pregnancy would likely cause

  1. A. Expulsion of the fetus
  2. B. Accelerated fetal development
  3. C. A decrease in secretion of HCG by the pituitary
  4. D. An increase in the development of the endometrium

    5. 2. A home pregnancy test that is positive reveals the presence of a hormone in urine. This hormone is only present in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which hormone is detected by this home pregnancy test?

  5. A. Progesterone
  6. B. Oxytocin
  7. C. Relaxin
  8. D. HCG

    9. 3. At puberty, the LH in the human male directly

  9. A. Inhibits the production of sperm
  10. B. Stimulates the production of testosterone
  11. C. Causes the growth of facial and body hair
  12. D. Stimulates the maturation of the seminiferous tubules

    13. 4. If a pregnant woman failed to produce oxytocin, what would be the result?

  13. A. Urination would be more frequent.
  14. B. ADH levels in the bloodstream would drop.
  15. C. Uterine contractions would not begin for labour.
  16. D. Oxytocin levels would increase in the bloodstream.

    17. 5. During pregnancy, menstruation is prevented by the action of

  17. A. Estrogen, initially secreted by the ovaries and later by the pituitary gland
  18. B. Estrogen, initially secreted by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta
  19. C. Progesterone, initially secreted by the ovaries and later by the pituitary gland
  20. D. Progesterone, initially secreted by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta

    21. 6. A poorly developed uterine lining mainly affects the

  21. A. Lifespan of the unfertilized egg
  22. B. Implantation of the fertilized egg
  23. C. Ability of the sperm to fertilize the egg
  24. D. Development of the egg within the ovary

    25. 7. Which hormone, if given to the egg donor, would promote the growth and development of ova?

  25. A. LH
  26. B. FSH
  27. C. Estrogen
  28. D. Progesterone

    29. 8. An unusual and rare form of the disease cystic fibrosis results in the absence of the vas deferens in males. When this occurs, infertility results because of

  29. A. Decreased spermatogenesis
  30. B. An inability to maintain an erection
  31. C. Decreased secretions of alkaline buffers
  32. D. The failure of sperm to reach the urethra

    33. 9. During the process of implantation, the enzymes secreted by the

  33. A. Ovum digest the zygote membrane
  34. B. Sperm digest the zygote membrane
  35. C. Blastocyst digest a portion of the endometrium
  36. D. Blastocyst digest a portion of the corpus luteum

    37. 10. Microscopic examination has revealed protective layers surrounding the oocyte. The first sperm to reach the oocyte is usually not the one to fertilize it. The reason this first sperm may not fertilize the oocyte is that

  37. A. Its nucleus may not be acceptable for fertilization
  38. B. Some sperm produce enzymes that fail to break down the protective layers
  39. C. The enzymes from many sperm are needed to penetrate the protective layers
  40. D. The protective layers secrete chemicals that destroy many sperm that contact the oocyte

    41. 11. In humans, the temperature within the scrotum is usually

  41. A. Above body temperature
  42. B. Below body temperature
  43. C. The same as body temperature
  44. D. The same as room temperature

    45. 12. The onset of labour at the end of pregnancy is caused partly by a decreased level of

  45. A. LH
  46. B. FSH
  47. C. Estrogen
  48. D. Progesterone

    49. 13. Some contraceptives, such as condoms, prevent fertilization. Fertilization usually occurs in the structure labeled

  49. A. Oviduct
  50. B. Ovaries
  51. C. Uterus
  52. D. Vagina

    53. 14. Another contraceptive, the birth control pill, causes negative feedback on the pituitary, which prevents the release of eggs. Typically, the hormones in the birth control pill are similar to

  53. A. FSH and LH
  54. B. Oxytocin and prolactin
  55. C. Estrogen and progesterone
  56. D. Relaxin and gonadotropins

    57. 15. Ingestion of a plant called skunk cabbage by pregnant sheep has been found to cause severe birth defects and to delay birth for several weeks. A reasonable hypothesis is that skunk cabbage contains a chemical that

  57. A. Increases uterine sensitivity to estrogen
  58. B. Decreases placental production of progesterone
  59. C. Inhibits the fetal hypothalamus or adrenal gland
  60. D. Increases conversion of progesterone to estrogen

    61. 16. The nucleus of a human oocyte would normally be

  61. A. Diploid and contain 23 chromosomes
  62. B. Diploid and contain 46 chromosomes
  63. C. Haploid and contain 23 chromosomes
  64. D. Haploid and contain 46 chromosomes

    65. 17. Infertility patients are advised to monitor their urine for the presence of a hormone that will signal ovulation. This hormone is

  65. A. LH
  66. B. FSH
  67. C. HCG
  68. D. Estrogen

    69. 18. During the first three days of development, the human embryo obtains nutrients and energy from the

  69. A. HCG
  70. B. Amniotic fluid
  71. C. Cytoplasm of the mother's egg
  72. D. Mitochondria of the father's sperm

    73. 19. Premature infants born at 24-weeks gestation face a wide spectrum of physiological problems. These problems arise because prior to the third trimester of pregnancy, fetuses

  73. A. Have organs that are underdeveloped
  74. B. Have not yet begun cell specialization
  75. C. Depend upon amniotic fluid for oxygen
  76. D. Depend upon amniotic fluid for nutrients

    77. 20. The presence of a particular hormone in urine indicates that pregnancy has occurred. This hormone is secreted by the

  77. A. Ovary
  78. B. Amnion
  79. C. Chorion
  80. D. Pituitary

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